Tuesday, November 07, 2006

Does the Sexual Offences Act apply equally to the apparatus of the state?

On my travels this morning I found myself reading the Sexual Offences Act 2003. Interestingly, Part 1, section 10 relates to "Causing or inciting a child to engage in sexual activity" and basically makes it a crime for anyone over the age of 18 to incite or intentional cause anyone under 16 to engage in penetrative or oral sex.

It occured to me that a Family Panning Centre and local authorities handing out condoms in their sexual education programmes fall into this category don't they? Or does this law not apply to the state?

As an aside, people should read the Act, it's interesting to note for example that until this Act came into force it appears that it was not illegal to engage in necrophilia.

4 comments:

Ross said...

Necrophilia wasn't a specific crime, but would have been a crime under trespass laws and laws regarding interfering with a corpse.

Anonymous said...

ross, I expect it would only have been law if it had been widespread practice, so it boils down to the trespass side of things.

I'm sure there are lots of GPs guilty of breaking this law as Dizzy's definition seems to be accurate.

Why was you reading this, btw? What's wrong with the Grauniad?

dizzy said...

I have no idea how I ended up reading the Sexual Offences Act, and you're not the first to ask. It began this morning with research in the Disability Discrimination Act 19995 and 2003, and it just kind of flowed from there all the way to bestiality and necrophilia. Odd morning.

dizzy said...

an odd year too by the looks of things!